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Daily #144 · Reproductive / Sexual Health · Archive

NCLEX-RN® question of the day

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The question

A 52-year-old woman presents to the clinic reporting hot flashes, night sweats, and irregular periods over the past 8 months. She asks about hormone therapy (HT) to manage her symptoms. During the health history, she reveals she was treated for estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer 3 years ago and has been cancer-free since. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

  1. Explain that hormone therapy is contraindicated given her history of estrogen-receptor-positive breast cancer and discuss non-hormonal symptom management options.
  2. Encourage the patient to start progestin-only therapy, as it does not carry the same risks as estrogen.
  3. Reassure the patient that low-dose estrogen therapy is safe since she has been cancer-free for more than 2 years.
  4. Advise the patient to wait until she has been cancer-free for 5 years before considering hormone therapy.

Today's and yesterday's questions are open to everyone. Older questions in the archive open with a free account, and the rationale for every option appears once you answer.